TechnicalEasy
Walk me through a sell-side M&A process from start to finish.
Say thisYou prepare first: diligence on your own client, the model, the teaser and the CIM, and a buyer list. Then you go out, send teasers, sign NDAs and release the CIM. First round bids come in as non-binding indications. You take a shortlist into management presentations and the data room, then take binding second round bids with markups of the purchase agreement. Then negotiate, sign, and close once approvals clear.
Hit these points- Preparation: diligence, model, teaser, CIM, buyer list
- Outreach on the teaser, NDA signed before the CIM goes out
- First round: non-binding indications of interest, used to shortlist
- Second round: management presentations, data room, markup of the agreement
- Binding bids, negotiation, signing, then closing once approvals clear
They are testingWhether you know signing and closing are separate events. Candidates who end the process at signing have not seen a deal through.
Full explanation
The gap between signing and closing is where regulatory clearance, shareholder votes and financing sit, and it can run from weeks to more than a year. Everything in the agreement about interim operating covenants, MAC clauses and termination fees exists to govern that gap.
TechnicalEasy
What is the difference between a teaser and a CIM?
Say thisThe teaser is one or two anonymous pages sent cold to a wide buyer list, describing the business generically enough that nobody can identify it: sector, scale, a few financial highlights, the investment case. The CIM is the full book, fifty pages or more, naming the company and giving detailed financials, customers, management and projections. It only goes out after an NDA is signed, because it contains genuinely confidential information.
Hit these points- Teaser: short, anonymous, sent broadly to generate interest
- CIM: detailed, named, sent only after an NDA
- CIM covers business description, financials, customers, management, projections
- The NDA is the gate between the two documents
- Both are marketing documents, so projections in a CIM are usually optimistic
They are testingWhether you flag that a CIM is a marketing document. Treating management projections in a CIM as neutral truth is a classic junior error.
Full explanation
The teaser is one or two anonymous pages sent cold to a wide buyer list, describing the business generically enough that nobody can identify it: sector, scale, a few financial highlights, the investment case. The CIM is the full book, fifty pages or more, naming the company and giving detailed financials, customers, management and projections. It only goes out after an NDA is signed, because it contains genuinely confidential information.
TechnicalEasy
In a deal offering a cash or stock election, what stops everyone simply choosing cash?
Say thisProration. The acquirer fixes the aggregate mix, say fifty percent cash and fifty percent stock in total, and lets each holder state a preference. If elections exceed the pool, everyone electing that form is scaled back pro rata and receives the balance in the other. So the mix the acquirer wants is guaranteed regardless of what shareholders ask for, and elections only determine who gets what.
Hit these points- Aggregate mix is fixed by the acquirer, not by shareholder demand
- Elections are scaled back pro rata if oversubscribed
- Holders receive the balance in the other form of consideration
- Protects the acquirer's funding plan and its pro forma balance sheet
- Elections sort holders by preference, mainly tax driven, without changing the total
They are testingWhether you know the acquirer controls the total mix. Candidates often assume the consideration mix floats with shareholder choice.
Full explanation
Work an example. If the deal is 50% cash overall and holders of 80% of the shares elect cash, each cash elector receives 50 divided by 80, so 62.5% of their consideration in cash and 37.5% in stock. Elections are usually driven by tax: stock consideration can defer a capital gain, cash crystallizes it.
TechnicalEasy
Why would one company acquire another?
Say thisUsually to get something it cannot build fast enough on its own: market share, a product, technology, distribution, or a team. Financially the deal has to create value through cost or revenue synergies, or by being accretive to earnings. There are also defensive reasons, like consolidating a fragmented market before a competitor does it first.
Hit these points- Strategic: market share, products, geography, technology, talent
- Financial: synergies, accretion, sometimes diversification
- Defensive: consolidation, blocking a competitor
- Cost synergies are more credible than revenue synergies
- The real test is whether value created exceeds the premium paid
They are testingWhether you think commercially rather than reciting a list.
Full explanation
Cost synergies are far more believable than revenue synergies, and bankers know it. Cost synergies come from removing duplicate overhead and are largely within management's control. Revenue synergies depend on customers behaving as hoped, and they routinely fail to materialize.
TechnicalEasy
What is the difference between a merger and an acquisition?
Say thisTechnically a merger combines two companies into a new single entity, often between roughly equal parties, while an acquisition is one company buying another which continues as a subsidiary or is absorbed. In practice the terms are used loosely and almost every deal has an acquirer, so the distinction is often more about how the deal is presented publicly than about the legal structure.
Hit these points- Merger: two entities combine, often framed as equals
- Acquisition: one buys the other, which is absorbed or held as a subsidiary
- In practice nearly every deal has a clear acquirer
- The framing is often presentational rather than structural
- Accounting treats almost all of them as acquisitions regardless of label
They are testingWhether you note the distinction is largely presentational. Answering it as a rigid legal difference misses the real-world point.
Full explanation
Technically a merger combines two companies into a new single entity, often between roughly equal parties, while an acquisition is one company buying another which continues as a subsidiary or is absorbed. In practice the terms are used loosely and almost every deal has an acquirer, so the distinction is often more about how the deal is presented publicly than about the legal structure.
TechnicalEasy
What is the difference between a spin-off, a carve-out and a divestiture?
Say thisAll three separate a business from a parent, but the consideration differs. In a spin-off the parent distributes subsidiary shares to its own shareholders pro rata, receives no cash, and can usually structure it tax-free. In a carve-out the parent sells a minority stake to the public through an IPO, raises cash and keeps control. A divestiture is an outright sale to a buyer for cash, which is taxable.
Hit these points- Spin-off: shares distributed to existing holders, no cash to the parent
- Spin-offs can usually be structured tax-free if the rules are met
- Carve-out: minority IPO of a subsidiary, parent gets cash and keeps control
- Divestiture: outright sale for cash, generally taxable
- The choice turns on cash need, tax treatment and whether a buyer exists
They are testingWhether you use cash and tax as the sorting criteria rather than reciting three definitions.
Full explanation
All three separate a business from a parent, but the consideration differs. In a spin-off the parent distributes subsidiary shares to its own shareholders pro rata, receives no cash, and can usually structure it tax-free. In a carve-out the parent sells a minority stake to the public through an IPO, raises cash and keeps control. A divestiture is an outright sale to a buyer for cash, which is taxable.
TechnicalEasy
What is an earnout and why would a deal include one?
Say thisAn earnout is part of the purchase price paid only if the business hits agreed targets after closing, usually EBITDA, revenue or a milestone like a regulatory approval. It bridges a valuation gap: the seller believes the forecast, the buyer does not, so you let the outcome decide. Most common in founder-led and private deals, and a frequent source of post-closing disputes.
Hit these points- Contingent consideration paid only if post-closing targets are met
- Bridges a gap between buyer and seller views of the forecast
- Metrics are usually EBITDA, revenue or a specific milestone
- Common in founder-led, private and biotech deals
- Disputes are frequent because the buyer now runs the business
They are testingWhether you spot the built-in conflict: the buyer controls the company whose performance decides the seller's payment.
Full explanation
The accounting matters too. Contingent consideration is recorded at fair value as a liability at closing and remeasured each period, with the change running through the income statement. So a target that outperforms can produce an earnings charge for the acquirer, which surprises candidates who assume a good outcome is only good news.
TechnicalEasy
Why do bankers bother running an accretion and dilution analysis at all?
Say thisBecause it is the first question a public acquirer's board and its shareholders ask, and a dilutive deal is hard to sell publicly even when it makes strategic sense. It is also a fast sanity check on price and funding mix that you can run in a minute on a napkin. What it is not is a valuation test, so it tells you about the likely market reaction rather than whether the deal creates value.
Hit these points- Boards and shareholders anchor on near-term EPS impact
- It is a quick screen on price and financing mix
- Usually run for the first two or three years after closing
- It is an accounting outcome, not a measure of value creation
- Management guidance often commits to accretion by a specific year
They are testingWhether you can hold both ideas: it matters commercially and it is analytically weak. Dismissing it entirely reads as naive about how boards behave.
Full explanation
Because it is the first question a public acquirer's board and its shareholders ask, and a dilutive deal is hard to sell publicly even when it makes strategic sense. It is also a fast sanity check on price and funding mix that you can run in a minute on a napkin. What it is not is a valuation test, so it tells you about the likely market reaction rather than whether the deal creates value.
TechnicalEasy
Rank cash, debt and stock by how likely each is to make a deal accretive, and explain the ranking.
Say thisRank them by after tax cost against what the target earns. Cash is usually cheapest: giving up 3% of interest income costs 2.25% after tax at a 25% rate. New debt at 6% costs 4.5% after tax, since interest is deductible. Stock costs the acquirer's earnings yield, one over its P/E, so about 6.7% at 15 times. Cash, then debt, then stock.
Hit these points- Cost of cash: forgone interest, after tax, so 3% becomes 2.25%
- Cost of debt: interest rate after tax, so 6% becomes 4.5%
- Cost of stock: the acquirer's earnings yield, one divided by its P/E
- Accretive if the target's earnings yield exceeds the after-tax cost of funding
- Order is cash, then debt, then stock, at normal rate levels
They are testingWhether you express all three as an after-tax yield so they are comparable. Candidates usually know cash is cheapest but cannot say why in the same units.
Full explanation
The ranking is not permanent. At high interest rates and low equity multiples the order can invert: debt at 10% costs 7.5% after tax, while a stock at 20 times costs only 5%. That is exactly why financing mix conversations changed so sharply when rates rose.
TechnicalMedium
What is the difference between a tender offer and a one-step merger?
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TechnicalMedium
How would you advise a client to choose between a broad auction, a targeted auction and a negotiated sale?
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TechnicalMedium
What are representations and warranties, and how do indemnities and escrow relate to them?
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TechnicalMedium
Signed at an enterprise value of $500m on a cash free, debt free basis. The working capital peg is $40m. At close, actual working capital is $34m, cash is $10m and debt is $60m.How does the working capital adjustment at close work, and what does the buyer get out of it?
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TechnicalMedium
Walk me through a merger model at a high level.
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TechnicalMedium
What is a contribution analysis, and when is it the analysis that matters most?
Say thisYou compare what each side brings to the combination, revenue, EBITDA, net income, cash flow, against the ownership each side would hold afterwards. If a company contributes 60% of combined EBITDA but would own only 52% of the pro forma equity, the gap is the question. It matters most in mergers of equals and low or no premium stock deals, where there is no cash price to argue about.
Hit these points- Compares contribution of each financial metric to pro forma ownership
- Typically run on revenue, EBITDA, EBIT, net income and free cash flow
- A gap between contribution and ownership is the negotiating point
- Most useful in mergers of equals and no-premium stock deals
- Ownership follows relative market values, contribution follows fundamentals
They are testingWhether you can explain why contribution and ownership differ: ownership is set by market value, contribution by earnings, and the gap is the relative multiple.
Full explanation
The analysis is also a quiet argument about which multiple the market should be applying. A company that contributes far more EBITDA than ownership is effectively conceding that the market values its earnings less highly, so contribution charts show up in defense presentations arguing exactly the opposite.
TechnicalMedium
When should a company sell itself rather than keep acquiring?
Say thisWhen it is worth more inside somebody else's portfolio than standing alone. That happens when it lacks the scale to compete on cost, when it needs capital or capability it cannot fund, when the founder or family wants liquidity, or when the sector is consolidating and waiting means selling later from a weaker position. The hardest version is a good business that is simply subscale, because there is no crisis forcing the decision.
Hit these points- Sell when the business is worth more to an owner than standalone
- Triggers: subscale cost position, capital needs, succession, sector consolidation
- Consolidating sectors reward early movers, latecomers sell from weakness
- A strong current multiple is an argument for selling, not against
- Management incentives often push against selling, which is a governance issue
They are testingWhether you acknowledge the conflict: management usually prefers to buy rather than be bought, because being bought ends their jobs.
Full explanation
When it is worth more inside somebody else's portfolio than standing alone. That happens when it lacks the scale to compete on cost, when it needs capital or capability it cannot fund, when the founder or family wants liquidity, or when the sector is consolidating and waiting means selling later from a weaker position. The hardest version is a good business that is simply subscale, because there is no crisis forcing the decision.
TechnicalMedium
What are the ways to pay for an acquisition, and how do you choose between them?
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TechnicalMedium
What is purchase price allocation, and why does goodwill arise?
Say thisAt close the buyer must record the target's assets and liabilities at fair value rather than book value. You write assets up to fair value, recognize intangibles that were never on the target's books such as brands and customer relationships, and record deferred taxes on the differences. Goodwill is the plug: whatever purchase price is left over after allocating to identifiable net assets. It represents what you paid beyond the identifiable pieces.
Hit these points- Assets and liabilities restated to fair value at close
- Previously unrecorded intangibles get recognized
- Deferred tax liability arises where book is written up but tax basis is not
- Goodwill is the residual plug, not a valuation of anything specific
- Goodwill is tested for impairment annually rather than amortized
They are testingWhether you describe goodwill as a residual. Candidates often describe it as if it were an asset that was independently valued.
Full explanation
A large goodwill impairment later is effectively an admission that the price paid exceeded what the business turned out to be worth. It is non-cash and markets often look through it, but it is a real signal about the original deal.
TechnicalMedium
What are synergies, and how do you value them?
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TechnicalMedium
What is a fairness opinion, and who is it for?
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TechnicalMedium
Acquirer buys the target's equity for $800m. The target has $200m of existing debt that must be refinanced at close, and $50m of cash that will be used to fund the deal. Fees are $30m. The acquirer raises $600m of new debt.Build the sources and uses for this acquisition.
Say thisUses first: $800m for the equity, $200m to refinance the target's existing debt, and $30m of fees, so $1,030m of uses in total. Sources: $50m of the target's own cash plus $600m of new debt is $650m, so the acquirer must fund the remaining $380m from its own balance sheet. Sources and uses always tie, and fees are the line people forget.
Hit these points- Uses: 800 equity plus 200 refinancing plus 30 fees equals $1,030m
- Sources so far: 50 target cash plus 600 new debt equals $650m
- Balancing figure: acquirer cash of $380m
- Existing debt is a use only if it is actually refinanced at close
- Fees belong in uses and are frequently omitted
They are testingWhether you treat the refinancing of existing debt as a use and remember fees. Both are common omissions that make the schedule fail to tie.
Full explanation
Uses first: $800m for the equity, $200m to refinance the target's existing debt, and $30m of fees, so $1,030m of uses in total. Sources: $50m of the target's own cash plus $600m of new debt is $650m, so the acquirer must fund the remaining $380m from its own balance sheet. Sources and uses always tie, and fees are the line people forget.
TechnicalMedium
Why is accretion not the same thing as value creation?
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TechnicalMedium
Acquirer trades at a P/E of 15x. It buys a target for $1,000m, funded either entirely with new debt at 6% pre-tax, or entirely with stock. Tax rate 25%.How much does the financing mix change accretion here?
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TechnicalMedium
How can an all-stock deal at a 40% premium still be accretive?
Say thisBecause accretion depends on the multiple paid against the acquirer's own multiple, not on the size of the premium. If the acquirer trades at 25 times and the target at 12 times unaffected, a 40% premium takes the purchase multiple to 16.8 times, still comfortably below 25, so it is accretive. You would need a premium above roughly 108% before the purchase multiple reached 25 times and the deal turned dilutive.
Hit these points- Accretion compares the P/E paid with the acquirer's P/E
- A 40% premium on 12x gives a purchase multiple of 16.8x
- 16.8x is below 25x, so the deal is accretive
- Breakeven premium here is 25 over 12 less one, about 108%
- The premium is measured against the target's price, not the acquirer's multiple
They are testingWhether you separate the premium from the multiple paid. Assuming a large premium means dilution is the single most common misconception in this area.
Full explanation
Because accretion depends on the multiple paid against the acquirer's own multiple, not on the size of the premium. If the acquirer trades at 25 times and the target at 12 times unaffected, a 40% premium takes the purchase multiple to 16.8 times, still comfortably below 25, so it is accretive. You would need a premium above roughly 108% before the purchase multiple reached 25 times and the deal turned dilutive.
TechnicalMedium
Two companies merge at market with no premium and no synergies. Does anybody's EPS change?
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TechnicalMedium
What makes a deal accretive or dilutive?
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TechnicalMedium
A company trading at 20x P/E acquires a company at 15x in an all-stock deal. Accretive or dilutive, and why?
Say thisAccretive. The acquirer is issuing stock at a five percent earnings yield, the inverse of twenty times, and buying earnings at a six point seven percent yield, the inverse of fifteen times. It picks up more earnings than it gives away, so EPS rises. But that says nothing about whether the deal creates value. Accretion here is an arithmetic consequence of the multiples, not evidence the acquisition was a good idea.
Hit these points- Accretive
- One over 20 is a 5% cost of the stock issued
- One over 15 is a 6.7% yield on earnings acquired
- You acquire cheaper earnings than you issue
- The caveat matters: accretion does not equal value creation
They are testingWhether you volunteer the caveat. Everyone gets the arithmetic. The caveat is what distinguishes the answer.
Full explanation
A company with an inflated multiple can acquire almost anything and report EPS growth, which is how serial acquirers manufacture the appearance of performance. Value creation depends on whether the price paid is below what the business is actually worth to you, including synergies.
TechnicalMedium
What is the difference between an asset purchase and a stock purchase?
Say thisIn a stock purchase the buyer acquires the equity of the target and inherits everything, including all liabilities, known and unknown. In an asset purchase the buyer picks specific assets and assumes only specified liabilities, which limits exposure and usually gives a tax step-up in the asset basis. Buyers generally prefer asset deals, sellers generally prefer stock deals, and the price reflects who wins that argument.
Hit these points- Stock purchase: buy the entity, inherit all liabilities
- Asset purchase: cherry-pick assets, assume only named liabilities
- Asset deals usually give the buyer a tax step-up in basis
- Sellers prefer stock deals, often for better tax treatment
- The structure is priced, it is not a free choice
They are testingWhether you know each side prefers the opposite structure and that the price adjusts for it.
Full explanation
The step-up matters because a higher tax basis means more depreciation and amortization deductions, which shelters future income. That is worth real money to the buyer, which is why they will pay something for the structure.
TechnicalMedium
What is the difference between a break fee and a reverse termination fee?
Say thisA break fee is paid by the target to the buyer if the target walks away, typically one to three percent of equity value, usually because the board accepted a superior proposal. A reverse termination fee runs the other way: the buyer pays if it fails to close, most often on an antitrust failure or lost financing. Both compensate sunk costs, and the reverse fee often caps the buyer's liability.
Hit these points- Break fee: target pays buyer, usually on a superior proposal
- Typically one to three percent of equity value
- Reverse termination fee: buyer pays target for failing to close
- Common triggers are antitrust denial and financing failure
- Reverse fees are often larger and can cap the buyer's exposure
They are testingWhether you know which way each fee flows and what actually triggers it. Getting the direction backwards is a common slip.
Full explanation
Break fees also police the auction. A fee that is too large deters a topping bid and invites a shareholder challenge, so boards keep it in the customary range. Deals with a go-shop period usually carry a lower fee during the go-shop window and step up to the full fee afterwards, which is precisely the point of the structure.
TechnicalHard
How does the amortization of acquired intangibles affect accretion and dilution?
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TechnicalHard
How does the acquirer's balance sheet differ between an all-cash and an all-stock deal?
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TechnicalHard
What is a hostile takeover, and what defenses does a target have?
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TechnicalHard
What is a MAC clause, and why is one almost never successfully triggered?
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TechnicalHard
What is the difference between a locked box and completion accounts, and which would you rather have as a seller?
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TechnicalHard
All-stock deal. Target holders are to receive $30 of acquirer stock per share. Acquirer share price at signing is $50. Floating exchange ratio, collared between acquirer prices of $45 and $55.Explain how this collar allocates risk between the two sets of shareholders.
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TechnicalHard
Acquirer: share price $60, 100m shares. Target: share price $24, 50m shares. Offer is 0.5 acquirer shares per target share, all stock.Work out the premium and the pro forma ownership split.
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TechnicalHard
Most acquisitions do not create value for the acquirer. Why not?
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TechnicalHard
Acquirer has net income of $500 and 100 shares, so EPS is $5.00. It buys a target with net income of $100 for $1,000, funded entirely with new debt at a 6% interest rate. Tax rate is 25%.Is this accretive or dilutive, and by how much roughly?
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TechnicalHard
An acquirer buys a target for $1bn, funded entirely with new debt at 8%. The target contributes $60m of EBIT. Tax rate is 25%. No new shares are issued.Is this deal accretive, and how much in synergies would it need to break even?
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TechnicalHard
Acquirer: net income $400, 200 shares, share price $40. Target: net income $60, purchase price $600, funded 50% stock and 50% cash. Cash forgone was earning 3% pre-tax. Tax rate 25%.Accretive or dilutive, and by how much?
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TechnicalHard
Acquirer: net income $300m, 150m shares, so EPS $2.00. It buys a target with net income of $50m for $900m, all cash funded with new debt at 8%. Tax rate 25%.Is this dilutive, and what pre-tax synergies would it take to break even?
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TechnicalHard
Acquirer: net income $400m, 200m shares, so EPS $2.00, share price $24 and therefore a P/E of 12x. Target net income $40m. All-stock deal, no synergies.What is the maximum the acquirer can pay before the deal turns dilutive?
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